We want to prove that for each , there exists a unique set such that .
So and ?
Obviously because (by associative law). But that only proves existence and not uniqueness.
Last edited by shilz222; Aug 18th 2007 at 08:14 AM.
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You should know that the symmetric difference operation is associative: .
If then consider this: . We have shown the property.
Yes thats what I did in my first post.
But does that suffice to show that ?
If then .
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