# Math Help - Please explain...proof

Problem: Prove the following,

$\frac{a}{b} + \frac{c}{d} = \frac{ad +bc}{bd}$ if b,d $\not=$ 0

I'm sorry to say I analyze this utterly elementary proof to the point of being unable to move.

Proof from book: $(ad + bc)/(bd) = (ad+bc)(bd)^{-1}$
$(ad + bc)(bd)^{-1}$ by (iii) = $ab^{-1} + cd^{-1} = \frac {a}{d} + \frac{c}{d}$

the book then cites the following proof as justification for the latter equivalence:

(iii) = $(ab)^{-1} = a^{-1}b^{-1}$ if a,b \not= 0
proof of (iii) from book, $ab(a^{-1}b^{-1}) = (a * a^{-1})(b * b^{-1}) = 1, so a^{-1} * b^{-1} = (ab)^{-1}$

I get that $(a)^{-1} = \frac{1}{a}$
I also understand that $bd(bd)^{-1} = 1$

There is a continuity gap in my comprehension, educate me please.

2. $\displaystyle \frac{a}{b} \times \frac{d}{d}+ \frac{c}{d}\times \frac{b}{b}= \dots$

3. There is a continuity gap in my comprehension, educate me please.
I am not sure which step of the proof from the book is not clear to you.