Hi,
I'm stuck on a simple problem - I have the following equivalences:
(¬P^¬Q)v(R^Q)v(¬P^R)=(¬P^¬Q)v(R^Q)
I can see why it is so simply by seeing that the first two terms already account for the truth of the third under the possible permutations.
However, I cannot see how to derive the result just using the propositional logic laws/manipulations.
Thanks for your help!
Chris
