Hello,

the problem is to show that P isn't logical consequence of Q:

stands for relation.

Maybe some kind of proof by contradiction would work, but I couldn't make one.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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- Oct 18th 2010, 03:31 AMGreg98Not logical consequence (First-order logic)
Hello,

the problem is to show that P isn't logical consequence of Q:

stands for relation.

Maybe some kind of proof by contradiction would work, but I couldn't make one.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance! - Oct 18th 2010, 08:06 AMFailure
I think you are mistaken: is valid. Maybe you want to prove that is not valid, i.e. that Q is not a consequence of P?

If so I would suggest coming up with a countermodel, i.e. a model in which P is true but Q is not (take, for example, the natural numbers as domain and ). - Oct 18th 2010, 08:07 AMemakarov
Edit: too late.

In fact, P*is*the logical consequence of Q. Indeed, assume Q and take a y0 that works for all x, i.e., a y0 such that for all x we have r(x, y0). To prove "for all x there exists a y such that r(x, y)", fix an arbitrary x and let y = y0.

It is Q that is not the logical consequence of P. This can be shown by making a counter-model. For example, the domain is the set of people and r(x,y) means "y is x's mother".