I'm not sure how to do this. Help would be appreciated, thanks.
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If is denumerable, there is a bijection between and . Take any . Show that and are equinumerous. Without loss of generality, one may assume that .
Originally Posted by dynas7y I'm not sure how to do this. Help would be appreciated, thanks. If a set A is denumerable (meaning: INFINITE denumerable), then we can write , so define . Now just prove is a bijection... Tonio
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