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**morito14** Hey guys, I have a problem and I don't know a good way to deal with it... so basically, it says that a number $\displaystyle x$ is called Liouville number, for every $\displaystyle N>0$ there exist integers p and q > 1 such that $\displaystyle \left |{x-\frac{p}{q}}\right |<\frac{1}{q^N}$

question: prove that the set of all Liouville numbers has the same cardinality as the $\displaystyle \mathbb{R}$

Please, how can I approach this question??? is there a way to construct a bijection from the Liouvilles to the reals???