Hey guys, cant get my head around this fact .If p is a prime, then = 1 (mod p) provided a 0 mod p. If someone could explain with an clear example of some sort it would be much appreciated.
For an example, try working mod 5 (this is small enough to work with).
Alternatively, plug the following code into maple,
for n from 1 to (p-1) do
print(a, a mod p):
and change the number p to be any prime.
There actually exists a very beautiful proof of this result, which can be found on wikipedia. (Actually, this page contains many beautiful proofs of the theorem. If you really want to understand the theorem, read through as many of these proofs as you have the knowledge to grasp.)