Hey guys I got question regarding Logic Laws

Question: Use the laws of logic to determine whether:

$\displaystyle \sim ( \sim p \vee q) \equiv (p \wedge q)$ ?

My working out:

$\displaystyle

\sim ( \sim p \vee q)$ [Given]

$\displaystyle \equiv$ $\displaystyle ( p \wedge \sim q)$ [DeMorgan]

Therefore its not equivalent. Am I correct here? thank you.