# Math Help - Equivalence with logic laws

1. ## Equivalence with logic laws

Hey guys I got question regarding Logic Laws

Question: Use the laws of logic to determine whether:
$\sim ( \sim p \vee q) \equiv (p \wedge q)$ ?

My working out:

$
\sim ( \sim p \vee q)$
[Given]
$\equiv$ $( p \wedge \sim q)$ [DeMorgan]

Therefore its not equivalent. Am I correct here? thank you.

2. Yeah, they're not equivalent.