hey guys, i have this question.

$\displaystyle (((p \rightarrow r ) \rightarrow p ) \wedge q ) \wedge (-((p \rightarrow r ) \rightarrow p ))$

my answer after simplifing boths sides i got

$\displaystyle (p \wedge q ) \wedge (-p)$

which then using associative law gives

$\displaystyle q \wedge ( p \wedge -p )$

then inverse law

$\displaystyle q \wedge T$

then Annihilation law

$\displaystyle T $

so this is a tautology. Can anyone confirm this is correct? thanks!

EDIT: Sorry just noticed i posted this thread in the wrong section. Needs to be moved to discrete maths