You cannot prove this, as it is false. However, you can prove
by using the following fact repeatedly:
Prove that
I tried proving it directly using summation identities. I then tired using induction, but I kept getting stuck.
A proof similar to this may be in the forum, but it is difficult to search for. Thanks.
-Chops
Yep,
what i wrote takes the terms as a consequtive series of natural numbers from 0 to n. The question is asking to prove it for n arbitrary terms then ?
ok, I wrongly assumed it was your way of writing the sequence of natural numbers. I'll take another shot in a while.