Is it true if the set X is countably infinite then there are bijective maps f: X-->N and f:N-->X ?
Separately, could someone start me off on this proof:
Prove that if A in uncountable, then A - {x} is uncountable.
Thanks
Is it true if the set X is countably infinite then there are bijective maps f: X-->N and f:N-->X ?
Separately, could someone start me off on this proof:
Prove that if A in uncountable, then A - {x} is uncountable.
Thanks
Suppose thatwas uncountable but
was countable. Then, there exists a bijection
and so
given by
. This is clearly a bijeciton and thus a contradiction.
In fact, there is a much stronger statement that can be made.
Letbe uncountable and
be countable. Then
is uncountable.
Proof: Sinceis countable there exists some
which is bijective. Also, since
is countable there is some
which is also bijective. Clearly then,
given by
is a bijection, this of course contradicts that
is uncountable.