Come on, do not take a sledgehammer to crack a nut. There is a simple example:
Let thebe such infinite set that
, where
is the i-th prime number and
.
Then infinite familyis an example satisfying the requirements. Because for every distinct
and
and there are infinitely many primes.
I read a problem like this somewhere.
since there is a bijective mapping between N and Q, let A be the collection of all rational number cauchy sequence converging to 0, B be the collection of all rational number cauchy sequence converging to 1.
A union B is a uncountable set. for each a in A, and b in B, there are only finite common elements.
I actually did a similar problem to this (as you described). The question was "Does there exists an uncountable family of subsets of a countable set such that the interesction of any two is finite?" The answer is yes. I gave two examples. I actually did it on the forum if you are interested. But! The OP said that the sets need to be subsets ofand as your sets are not this doesn't work. I refuse to actually answer the question upon the grounds that the OP has NEVER shown any effort.