Let f and g be surjections from Z to Z and let h = fg be their product. Must h also be surjective? give a proof or counterexample. I'm pretty sure it's false because something to do with f = g but i just can't think of it
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solved f=g h=f^2 h is an element of Z let h = -1 i is not an element of the set Z therefore h is not a surjection
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