**Theorem 1** :

*A non-zero number has infinitely many multiples.* **Theorem 2** :

*A non-zero number has at least one divisor.* **Theorem 3** :

*There are infinitely many numbers.*
Therefore, according to

**Theorems 1 & 3**, the set of all multiples of

(an infinity) must contain infinitely many numbers composed of

's and

's. Because of

**Theorem 2**, these numbers have at least one divisor, and since they are infinitely many, there is a probability of

that

is a divisor of one of these numbers.

I don't know if this is "mathematically" correct, though.