Theorem 1 : A non-zero number has infinitely many multiples.
Theorem 2 : A non-zero number has at least one divisor.
Theorem 3 : There are infinitely many numbers.
Therefore, according to Theorems 1 & 3, the set of all multiples of (an infinity) must contain infinitely many numbers composed of 's and 's. Because of Theorem 2, these numbers have at least one divisor, and since they are infinitely many, there is a probability of that is a divisor of one of these numbers.
I don't know if this is "mathematically" correct, though.