Cardinality and Bijection
This was a question on my last test. The whole class got it wrong. I understand the falacy of my argument because there might be other functions f defined other than the bijection I stipulated. Can anyone help solve this? Thanks.
Suppose f: A B is a function between two finite sets A and B with the same cardinality. Prove that f is 1-1 iff f is onto.
Thanks, we were never given that definition
Thanks, we were never given that definition. The only definition in Rosen is "A set is said to be infinite if it is not finite."
Originally Posted by tonio
This is the first math class I've ever taken that has not been fun! (Crying)