Originally Posted by

**ChrisBickle** Hey everyone im taking a first semester set theory class and im trying to get ahead on hw since im not doing well and i was wondering if anyone could give me some kind of hint or sumthin to start this proof for hw:

Let G be a group, Prove ord(a) = ord(a)inverse the hint for the problem is to prove 2 cases G in finite order and G is infinte order. We have gone over this kinda stuff im just not sure where to start. If G is finite order then for some integer m a^m = e show that a^m(inverse) = e? thus order(ainverse) = order(a) and for infinite you would show for infinite order for a, ainverse has infinite order?