I think it cannot conclude that A = B because the same power set does not mean that they have the same set or same order. Am i right?Can you conclude that A = B if A and B are two sets with the same power set?

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- Sep 19th 2009, 10:39 PM #1

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- Sep 20th 2009, 02:47 AM #2

- Sep 20th 2009, 07:39 AM #3

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- Sep 20th 2009, 08:12 AM #4
I got to be honest with you: I don’t think that you have caught on to any of this material.

The above is no example at all.

Using , then it is clear to anyone who understands the definitions that .

Therefore, which in contrary to the given.

So start with .

We are trying to show that

Let’s do it.

. That shows that .

Similarly show that .

Together they mean

- Sep 20th 2009, 08:57 AM #5

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- Sep 20th 2009, 09:15 AM #6

- Sep 20th 2009, 09:24 AM #7

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- Sep 20th 2009, 09:34 AM #8

- Sep 20th 2009, 09:41 AM #9

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