Originally Posted by

**jon.s.beardsley** I'm trying to show that if a sequence of functions, (f_n) is uniformly convergent to a function f, and \phi_n (do people use LaTeX notation here?) is an approximation to the dirac delta (an approximate convolution identity), then f_n*\phi_n, i.e. the sequence of convolutions, is also convergent uniformly to f (for my purposes we can restrain ourselves to showing this on a compact set luckily!). This intuitively makes sense, but I'm having a doggone hard time showing it rigorously. Anyone have any ideas? Is this the right place for this post?