Hi
I suppose.
Yes that equality is quite natural. If you want to write and see, well, by definition:
Therefore
If you consider the two paths and in , then by definition:
So the equality comes from the fact that i.e. from the definition.
If is a map and if and are paths in with , then .
I was told that this follows directly from the definition of path composition. This is where so the first is a path in and the second is a path in . Is this completely justified by this, or do I need to justify this more than what is above?
Hi
I suppose.
Yes that equality is quite natural. If you want to write and see, well, by definition:
Therefore
If you consider the two paths and in , then by definition:
So the equality comes from the fact that i.e. from the definition.