Thread: Cauchy-Riemann equations and holomorphic functions

Consider the function defined by . Show that satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations at the origin yet it is not holomorphic at zero.

I can show that it satisfies the C-R equations but unsure about showing it is not holomorphic at zero. Please help?

f(z)-f(0)/(z-0) = f(z)/z
let z goes to 0 from the positive x axis, we have f(z)/z = 0/z = 0
let z goes to 0 from the positive part of the line y=x, we have f(z)/z = x/(x+ix)=(1-i)/2

Originally Posted by xxp9

f(z)-f(0)/(z-0) = f(z)/z
let z goes to 0 from the positive x axis, we have f(z)/z = 0/z = 0
let z goes to 0 from the positive part of the line y=x, we have f(z)/z = x/(x+ix)=(1-i)/2

Thanks, so because the left and right-hand side limits are different, f is not holomorphic? Also, what is the first line representing?

A function, of a complex variable, is "holomorphic" at a point if and only if it is differentable there. What xxp9 did is show that the limit defining the derivative does not exist by showing that the limits, as z approaches 0 from two different directions, give different resuts