Question about a question

The question states:

For $\displaystyle A,B\subset{{R^n}}$, prove that $\displaystyle \overline{A\cup{B}}=\overline{A}\cup{\overline{B}}$

Shouldn't it be $\displaystyle \overline{A}\cap{\overline{B}}$ by De Morgan's Laws?

Also, I thought of this counter example in $\displaystyle {R{^2}}$

Let $\displaystyle A,B\subset{{R{^2}}}$

$\displaystyle x\in{A}$ if $\displaystyle x_1$ even, $\displaystyle x_2=3k, k\in{\mathbb{Z}}$

$\displaystyle x\in{B}$ if $\displaystyle x_1$ even, $\displaystyle x_2=4k, k\in{\mathbb{Z}}$

Now consider $\displaystyle y=(4,8)$. $\displaystyle y\in{\overline{A}}$, thus $\displaystyle y\in{\overline{A}\cup{\overline{B}}}$.

But $\displaystyle y$ not in $\displaystyle \overline{A\cup{B}}$

Thus $\displaystyle \overline{A\cup{B}}\neq{\overline{A}\cup{\overline {B}}}$

Where is my mistake or is this the question's mistake?