If for some then it is trivial so we consider only sets of finite outer measure. Note that
where the last inequality on the right comes from the proposition that states outer measure is countably subadditive.
So does this seem reasonable?
I have an end of section problem from my analysis book that I would like a hint on, it reads: Prove that if are mutually disjoint measurable sets on the line then for any set A,
I have seen the proof for a finite number, n, of measurable sets where induction is used on n, could the same method be used and extended to the countably infinite case? Or should I be trying to show that the intersections of the E_k sets with A are measurable (regardless if A is measurable) and use the proposition stating the union of a countable collection of measurable sets is measurable then I can say the outer measure is equal to the lebesgue measure? I'm just not sure which direction I should take this, any suggestions?
If for some then it is trivial so we consider only sets of finite outer measure. Note that
where the last inequality on the right comes from the proposition that states outer measure is countably subadditive.
So does this seem reasonable?