Am I right in saying that if I have and
definied on is not uniform convergent to f(x) (the problem being near the 1)?
Thanks for any help
Last edited by Plato; October 19th 2011 at 03:16 AM.
Reason: LaTeX fix
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According to the uniform limit theorem, the uniform limit of a sequence of continuous functions is continuous, so you are right.
Cool thanks (I have proved it from the definition, which is a lot longer, feel a bit foolish now for asking!) it is pointwise convergent to f(x) though right?
Hint: To avoid <br/> in LaTeX formulas, remove all line breaks between [tex] and [/tex] (not LaTeX line breaks \\; just put the whole formula on one editor line).
Thanks very much for all the help (sorry about the poor LaTex and thanks for editing it)
Ha, it was Plato who edited it!
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