Show whether E is a Measurable Set
Let
be a sequence of measurable sets in
. Let
be a subset of
so that
if and only if
belongs to exactly 2 of the sets
. Determine whether E is measurable. If it is, show it. If not, give a counterexample.
I suppose it is measurable? No? Can't think of any counterexample.
Thanks in advance.
Re: Show whether E is a Measurable Set
for any two positive integers
consider the set
. Such sets are measurable and
is a union of such sets
Re: Show whether E is a Measurable Set
Quote:
Originally Posted by
Markeur
Let
_{k=1}^{\infty})
be a sequence of measurable sets in

. Let

be a subset of

so that

if and only if

belongs to exactly 2 of the sets

. Determine whether E is measurable. If it is, show it. If not, give a counterexample.
I suppose it is measurable? No? Can't think of any counterexample.
Thanks in advance.
In my opinion any question about "something" should start off with a definition of "something" and a demonstration that the definition is satis fied. So here is my little contribution as a matter of principle from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Measure_(mathematics)
σ-algebra, meaning that unions, intersections and complements of sequences of measurable subsets are measurable.
Let Σ be a σ-algebra over a set X. A function μ from Σ to the extended real number line is called a measure if it satisfies the following properties:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...359301d7ec.png for all http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...0fce1e8199.png
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...46cdd70cb1.png
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...9076c0df86.png
I would find it interesting to see how this would be done in the case of the previous post.