Why does cos[n(x+1)] for n->00 fail to have a limit at every x on [0,1]?

**gummy_ratz** · October 2nd 2011, 05:53 PM

Why does cos[n(x+1)] for n->00 fail to have a limit at every x on [0,1]?

I'm having a hard time visualizing it.

**Prove It** · October 2nd 2011, 07:49 PM

Originally Posted by gummy_ratz

I'm having a hard time visualizing it.

Maybe because $\displaystyle x$ is only defined for $\displaystyle x \in [0, 1]$ ... How can you possibly make $\displaystyle x\to\infty$ when the function does not even exist there?

**gummy_ratz** · October 2nd 2011, 08:19 PM

The function doesnt exist as n->00? I'm looking for a function cont. on fn:[0,1]->[0,1] that fails to have a limit for every x in [0,1], and when integrating it from 0 to 1 as n->00 it equals 0. I thought I read somewhere that this fit the description?

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