When you cos[n(x+1)] as n-> , at one point you say lim n-> 1/n [sin2n -sin(n)] lim n-> 2/n = 0 .
Why is it okay to say here? How do you know that the integral is 0, and not something less than 0.
When you cos[n(x+1)] as n-> , at one point you say lim n-> 1/n [sin2n -sin(n)] lim n-> 2/n = 0 .
Why is it okay to say here? How do you know that the integral is 0, and not something less than 0.
Hi gummy_ratx,
It is not clear what your problem is. Can you use a bit of latex to write your expression. http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...orial-266.html