Let be , where Let be and . Prove that: . I know that but not analyitic in 0. I also know that is a monotonically decreasing function . Thank you very much in advance!
Last edited by zadir; Sep 11th 2011 at 03:30 AM. Reason: typo
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T Originally Posted by zadir Let be , where Hey, this doesn't make sense. Are you sure you wrote right?
Originally Posted by Drexel28 T Hey, this doesn't make sense. Are you sure you wrote right? Thank you so much that you warned me. You are right, f(x)=g(1-g(x)), I have corrected it. Thanks! I have made another mistake that I have just noticed. In the title it is not bumb, but of course bump function. Sorry!
Last edited by zadir; Sep 11th 2011 at 03:31 AM. Reason: other mistake
Originally Posted by zadir Thank you so much that you warned me. You are right, f(x)=g(1-g(x)), I have corrected it. Thanks! I have made another mistake that I have just noticed. In the title it is not bumb, but of course bump function. Sorry! The problem is right and clear after correction, isn"t it? Thank you very much in advance!
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