,.hello everyone,.,i need ur help agen with this,.,
Let epsilon>0 be an irrational number and let z>0. then there exists a natural number m such that the irrational number epsilon/m satisfies 0<(epsilon/m)<z.
,.i somehow understand the proof on the book but i was having a hard time proving that
epsilon/m is an irrational number,.,can anyone give me a hand with this???any hint will do,.,.thnx a lot[IMG]file:///C:/Users/User/AppData/Local/Temp/msohtmlclip1/01/clip_image010.gif[/IMG]