but I'm stuck now.
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Now use the product rule! You know both the derivate of (2x + 3), AND the derivative of the integral (by the FTC, which you already used)...
You're almost there!
This is what I got next.
and the integral term becomes 0 because it is over the interval 2 to 2, but what happens in the remaining term?
You're close (see P's reply)...
Just plug in 2 for x (and lose the "dx"...)
I'm down to . Is this as far as I can go?
No, I don't know what . Thanks for your help.
Originally Posted by CountingPenguins Question:
F'(x) = Correct now:
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