i have a few questions about a proof. Let P be a polynomial of degree m :
Now we want to show that with is integrable on bounded sets.
The author argues as follows: For any , there is a , s.t. for we get:
So first of all i think, because P is a polynomial it has only finite many zeros. Therefore we can think about the integration area without these singularities. But why does the inequality hold?
edit: excuse me, there was something wrong. Now the proposition is correct. I forgot a minus in the exponent, that is instead of .
Please help me with my problem