There is a common theorem which says that for subspaces of a complete space completeness and closedness are synonomous. To be more explicit, if were complete the sequence (I'm thinking in notation) would converge to some point of . Does it?
There is a common theorem which says that for subspaces of a complete space completeness and closedness are synonomous. To be more explicit, if were complete the sequence (I'm thinking in notation) would converge to some point of . Does it?
a lot of thanx. i got the concept what you wanna said.But (1,-1/n) belongs to that D? hey!i am a fan of yours.