Dear MHF members,
the problem is the following.
Show that the functions
and
are of class.
Thanks.
bkarpuz
Here I will only show thatis of class
since the same arguments apply for
too.
Letand
, then by the mean value theorem, we have
, where
is between
and
, which yields
Thus, for all
, we have
since
. Given
, we may let
to have
for all
with
. This shows that
is continuous.
For the next step, we shall show that for, the integral
converges uniformly, i.e., for every
there exists
such that
![]()
for all
and
.
Since, for any given
, there exits
such that
, which yields
![]()
for all
. Therefore, the integral converges uniformly, which allows us to change the order of the differential operator and the integral. Then, for all
, we have
![]()
showing that
exists. We can show that
is continuous as well, i.e.,
is in
.