Let be bounded above, then prove that

Let since is bounded above, there's supremum, hence then I'm on the right track? How do I finish?

I think I'm wrong. :(

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- Mar 29th 2011, 02:26 PMConnectedSet bounded above
Let be bounded above, then prove that

Let since is bounded above, there's supremum, hence then I'm on the right track? How do I finish?

I think I'm wrong. :( - Mar 29th 2011, 02:44 PMhatsoff
Here's what you do: First show that . You've pretty much done that already. Now you need to show that .

There are a lot of ways to do that. One way is by contradiction: Suppose . Then , which means that there is some number with , a contradiction. - Mar 29th 2011, 02:45 PMmeasureman
- Mar 29th 2011, 03:41 PMConnected