I'm having trouble with this question:

Is the $\displaystyle $\displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n^2 x}{1+{n^4}{x^2}}$ $

uniformly convergent over the interval (0,1].

Now I know that it isn't uniformly convergent, and have started my proof with a contradiction.

So assuming for contradiction that it is uniformly convergent, we can say that $\displaystyle \forall \epsilon >0 \exists N \in \mathbb{N} s.t. \forall n,m>N |f_n(x) -

f_m(x)|<\epsilon$ but I don't know where to go from there. Any help?