I've attached the problem typed up to be more clear. I'm basically having trouble on how to prove that g'(x) exists using only that I know that f(x)<=g(x)<=h(x) for some neighborhood around x_0. I'm pretty sure I have to use some definition of the differentiation, but can't quite prove to myself that it exists without having more information.
Any help would be appreciated.
Thanks for all the help. You guys are stating pretty much as far as I got. My worry is that in the final line where you take the limit of everything. Does the limit of the g function being between the f and h functions enough to prove that it exists? I might be over thinking this, but just proving that the limit, if it exists, would be between the f'(x) and h'(x) might not be enough to actually prove that it exists? Or would it?
More specifically in terms of slope. You can have a undefined slope between a very steep positive slope and a very steep negative slope?
Thanks again for all the help and fast feedback!