Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove that if p > 1 then for

(−1, 0) U (0, ).

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- February 17th 2011, 04:26 AMmaximus101How do you Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove this
Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove that if p > 1 then for

(−1, 0) U (0, ). - February 17th 2011, 06:52 AMSudharaka
- February 19th 2011, 05:24 AMmaximus101
Hey, thank you for this it was very helpful could you explain how I could use the mean value theorem to prove it?

- February 19th 2011, 05:50 AMSudharaka
There are several mean value theorems; Rolle's mean value theorem, Cauchy's mean value theorem and the Taylor's mean value theorem. Please refer Mean value theorem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. I have used the Taylor's mean value theorem in the above answer.

- February 19th 2011, 06:08 AMmaximus101
- February 19th 2011, 06:12 AMSudharaka
- February 19th 2011, 06:34 AMmaximus101
ok I worked it out :) thank you