Let and be mappings. Prove that their composition is a differentiable mapping. (Take for simplicity). Then show that .
I do not know how to prove this and would appreciate some help. Thanks!
The first thing you should know is that you can't prove it. What you have stated is untrue. The composition of two arbitrary mappings is NOT in general a differentiable mapping.
Did you mean to say that F and G are themselves differentiable mappings? What is your definiton of "differentiable"?