Thread: Proving convergence of {an/bn} given...

Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof?

Originally Posted by gwiz

Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof?

where for all

CB