Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof?

Printable View

- Feb 16th 2011, 07:53 PMgwizProving convergence of {an/bn} given...
Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof? - Feb 16th 2011, 08:02 PMCaptainBlack