Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof?

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- February 16th 2011, 07:53 PMgwizProving convergence of {an/bn} given...
Theorem: If {an} is bounded and {bn} tends to infinity with bn not equal to 0 for all n, then {an/bn} converges to 0.

I am having trouble understanding why this theorem is true. Can somebody please provide me with a proof? - February 16th 2011, 08:02 PMCaptainBlack