Hi,

I'd appreciate some help with this question...

I'm thinking no, since from the definition of limit of a function we require "x not equal to a" for the limit of f(x) to exist. But here, we could have f(x) = l and then g(f(x)) isn't necessarily defined.Suppose that as and as . Must it be true that as ?

Is this right? If not then I could probably find a proof assuming f(x) is not l, but why could I do this?

Many thanks.