Hi,
I'd appreciate some help with this question...
I'm thinking no, since from the definition of limit of a function we require "x not equal to a" for the limit of f(x) to exist. But here, we could have f(x) = l and then g(f(x)) isn't necessarily defined.Suppose thatas
and
as
. Must it be true that
as
?
Is this right? If not then I could probably find a proof assuming f(x) is not l, but why could I do this?
Many thanks.


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