Hello,

i have a little question: If f is a differential form. Is then $\displaystyle f \wedge f=0$?

I think so, but i'm not sure, because i never work with forms before. Here is my proof:

let f:M->\Lambda(M) be a k-form and T^k the Alternator. then we get

$\displaystyle (f \wedge f)(P)=f(p)\wedge f(p)=\frac{(2k)!}{k!k!}*T^{2k}(f(p)\otimes f(p))=0$

because $\displaystyle T^{2k}(f(p)\otimes f(p))=0$

Is this correct?

Regards