Hi, I am studying tensor calculus and I am not too familiar with tensors currently. The question I have is:
The steps to prove that a lie derivative satisfies the usual product rule, ie it is Leibniz. Please see my attachment that shows where I am up to. It is much easier to scan this than it is to try write on a computer! I am confident I am right up to where I have marked an Astrix. From that line on I am partially confident.
Jan 16th 2011, 05:25 PM
I just realized that the last line I left is in the form of the product rule if you take Q = YZ (with appropriate indicies... hard to write on computer). Is that all I need to prove?????