Hi, I have a problem solving the following exercise:
Let ~ be the equivalence relation x~y iff x and y are diametrically opposite, on. Then
is homeomorphic to
. Is the corresponding result for
true?
Thanks for help.
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Hi, I have a problem solving the following exercise:
Let ~ be the equivalence relation x~y iff x and y are diametrically opposite, on. Then
is homeomorphic to
. Is the corresponding result for
true?
Thanks for help.
maybe it's a mistake in the book (General Topology, Stephen Willard).
Thanks for your answer, now i know why I couldn't find any bijection.
I don't know anything about algebraic topology, but it helps a lot I know the statement is not true. Thank you!