1. ## convolution

Hi everyone,
I'm trying to prove this, maybe i should young hausdorff , but i really don´t know,

if $f \in L^p(\mathbb{R} ^n)$ and $g \in L^q(\mathbb{R} ^n)$ then $f * g (x)\rightarrow 0$ when $| x | \rightarrow \infty$
thanks
everk

2. Originally Posted by everk
Hi everyone,
I'm trying to prove this, maybe i should young hausdorff , but i really don´t know,
if $f \in L^p(\mathbb{R} ^n)$ and $g \in L^q(\mathbb{R} ^n)$ then $f * g (x)\rightarrow 0$ when $| x | \rightarrow \infty$