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Thread: convolution

  1. November 24th 2010, 05:59 PM #1
    everk
    everk is offline
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    convolution

    Hi everyone,
    I'm trying to prove this, maybe i should young hausdorff , but i really donīt know,
    I apreciate your help.

    if f \in L^p(\mathbb{R} ^n) and g \in L^q(\mathbb{R} ^n) then f * g (x)\rightarrow 0 when | x | \rightarrow \infty
    thanks
    everk
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  2. November 25th 2010, 04:38 AM #2
    CaptainBlack
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    Quote Originally Posted by everk View Post
    Hi everyone,
    I'm trying to prove this, maybe i should young hausdorff , but i really donīt know,
    I apreciate your help.

    if f \in L^p(\mathbb{R} ^n) and g \in L^q(\mathbb{R} ^n) then f * g (x)\rightarrow 0 when | x | \rightarrow \infty
    thanks
    everk
    Post the whole question please.

    (as it stands what you ask us to prove is in general plainly not true)
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