When trying to prove thar the limit of a seq is unique, i saw in my notes tt for episilion >0, la-bl>2episilion assuming that a and b r the limits of the seq.

Then from here, why does it mean that la-bl =0?

Printable View

- Oct 21st 2010, 01:02 AMalexandrabel90Epsilion
When trying to prove thar the limit of a seq is unique, i saw in my notes tt for episilion >0, la-bl>2episilion assuming that a and b r the limits of the seq.

Then from here, why does it mean that la-bl =0? - Oct 22nd 2010, 06:23 PMTinyboss
If you mean then we get equality because can be arbitrarily small. If a and be were not equal you could choose small enough to break the inequality. Note that any constant multiple of would work just as well.