How would you prove that (1/x^n)-->0 as x-->infinity and (1/x^n)-->0 as x-->-infinity?
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Originally Posted by zebra2147 How would you prove that (1/x^n)-->0 as x-->infinity and (1/x^n)-->0 as x-->-infinity? Show that for all there exists a such that:for all we have In this case choose , then for : CB
Question: I understand what you said besides how you chose ?
Originally Posted by zebra2147 Question: I understand what you said besides how you chose ? You guess, try a few things, find something that works (there is no unique choice that works, there are plenty of them). CB
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