I want to show that the integral as ,where is the upper semi-circle from R to -R For this is easy to show. But how to show this for n=1?
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Hmm. right? Thus, The RHS goes to zero as
I don't see how this explains We can only state this with the knowledge that: , wich frankly we don't. The way it can be shown for is by using Then as But for n=1, we can't tell this easy....at least i don't see how. Maybe with a different
Well, I think the approach works fine. But if you don't like it, you could also use an ML estimate. You have and Therefore, as
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