Yes this is true
Here is the laTeX code [tex]f\left( {A_0 \cup A_1 } \right) = f\left( {A_0 } \right) \cup f\left( {A_0 } \right)[/tex]
Let f:A->B. Let A and B. Show that f preserves inclusion and unions only:
question: f( ) =f( ) f( ).
I'm not very good with the latex code and I just want to mention that I'm not sure why some things besides the 0 and the 1 look like subscripts. hopefully its not too confusing.