Hello, I can't solve the following problem involving the Fourier series of a function and need som guidance. I appriciate any suggestion. Thank you kindly.
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The even function in is... (1) ... and its cosine Fourier coefficients are... (2) Kind regards
Last edited by chisigma; Aug 18th 2010 at 05:47 AM.
So when can the rule: odd function times an even function becomes zero, applies when solving for Fourier coefficients??
Originally Posted by 4Math So when can the rule: odd function times an even function becomes zero, applies when solving for Fourier coefficients?? Please, can You explain with other words the question?... Kind regards
Originally Posted by chisigma Please, can You explain with other words the question?... Kind regards When solving for : the second integral: is an odd function and is an even function. And the result of that is an odd function times an even function becomes zero. Why can this not be applied here? By the way, thank you kindly for your response.
Originally Posted by 4Math When solving for : the second integral: is an odd function and is an even function. And the result of that is an odd function times an even function becomes zero. Why can this not be applied here?... Because the integral is from 0 to 2 and not from -a to +a... Kind regards