Prove that uniformly convergence at for , and not uniformly convergence at for .
Thank you so much!
Last edited by Also sprach Zarathustra; August 2nd 2010 at 05:53 AM.
Reason: k=n ( thank you Prove It)
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There isn't any in the expression...
To prove uniform convergence on you could use the Weierstrass M-test - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.
You can use the estimation for n>1
Hope that helps.
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